A set, i.e. a totality, of things called natural numbers, having the properties, called axioms, to be enumerated below.
Before formulating the axioms, a few remarks concerning the symbols = and = that will be used.
Small Latin letters in this book denote, unless otherwise stated, natural numbers throughout.
If x is given and y is given, then
either x and y are the same number; this may also be written
x=y
(= read: equals);
or x and y are not the same number; this may also be written
x=y
(= read: unequal).
Accordingly, on purely logical grounds, we have:
x=x for every x.
From
x=y
follows
y=x.
From
x=y,y=z
follows
x=z.
A notation such as
a=b=c=d,
by which at first only
a=b,b=c,c=d
is meant, thus contains in addition, e.g.,
a=c,a=d,b=d.
(Similarly in the later chapters.)
Of the set of natural numbers we now assume that it has the following properties:
Axiom 1: 1 is a natural number.
That is, our set is not empty; it contains a thing called 1 (read: one).
Axiom 2: For each x there exists exactly one natural number, which is called the successor of x and will be denoted by x′.
In the case of complicated x, the number whose successor is in question is enclosed in parentheses if a misunderstanding is otherwise to be feared. The same holds throughout the book for x+y, xy, x−y, −x, xy and the like.
From
x=y
it thus follows that
x′=y′.
Axiom 3: We always have
x′=1.
That is, there is no number whose successor is 1.
Axiom 4: From
x′=y′
follows
x=y.
That is, for every number there exists no number, or exactly one, whose successor is that number.
Axiom 5 (Axiom of Induction): Let M be a set of natural numbers with the properties:
I) 1 belongs to M.
II) If x belongs to M, then x′ belongs to M.
Then M contains all natural numbers.
§ 2. Addition
Theorem 1: From
x=y
follows
x′=y′.
Proof: Otherwise we would have
x′=y′,
and hence by Axiom 4
x=y.
Theorem 2:
x′=x.
Proof: Let M be the set of all x for which this holds.
I) By Axiom 1 and Axiom 3,
1′=1;
hence 1 belongs to M.
II) If x belongs to M, then
x′=x,
and hence by Theorem 1
(x′)′=x′,
so that x′ belongs to M.
Hence by Axiom 5 M contains all natural numbers; i.e. for every x we have
x′=x.
Theorem 3: If
x=1,
then there exists one (hence, by Axiom 4, exactly one) u with
x=u′.
Proof: Let M be the set consisting of the number 1 and of those x for which such a u exists. (Of itself, every such
x=1
by Axiom 3.)
I) 1 belongs to M.
II) If x belongs to M, then, with u denoting the number x,
x′=u′,
so that x′ belongs to M.
Hence by Axiom 5 M contains all natural numbers; thus for every
x=1
there exists a u with
x=u′.
Theorem 4, at the same time Definition 1: In exactly one way can there be assigned to every pair of numbers x, y a natural number, called x+y (+ read: plus), such that
x+1=x′ for every x,
x+y′=(x+y)′ for every x and every y.
x+y is called the sum of x and y, or the number obtained by addition of y to x.
Proof: A) First we show that for each fixed x there is at most one possibility of defining x+y for all y in such a way that
x+1=x′
and
x+y′=(x+y)′for each y.
Let ay and by be defined for all y and be such that
ay′=(ay)′,by′=(by)′for each y.
Let M be the set of all y with
ay=by.
I)
a1=x′=b1;
hence 1 belongs to M.
II) If y belongs to M, then
ay=by,
hence by Axiom 2
(ay)′=(by)′,
hence
ay′=(ay)′=(by)′=by′,
so that y′ belongs to M.
Therefore M is the set of all natural numbers; i.e. for every y we have
ay=by.
B) We now show that for each x there exists a possibility of defining x+y for all y in such a way that
x+1=x′
and
x+y′=(x+y)′for each y.
Let M be the set of all x for which there exists one (hence, by A), exactly one) such possibility.
I) For
x=1
the definition
x+y=y′
accomplishes what is required. For
x+1=1′=x′,x+y′=(y′)′=(x+y)′.
Hence 1 belongs to M.
II) Let x belong to M, so that there exists an x+y for all y. Then
x′+y=(x+y)′
accomplishes what is required for x′. For
x′+1=(x+1)′=(x′)′
and
x′+y′=(x+y′)′=((x+y)′)′=(x′+y)′.
Hence x′ belongs to M.
Therefore M contains all x.
Theorem 5 (associative law of addition):
(x+y)+z=x+(y+z).
Proof: Let x and y be fixed, and M the set of all z for which the assertion holds.
I)
(x+y)+1=(x+y)′=x+y′=x+(y+1);
hence 1 belongs to M.
II) Let z belong to M. Then
(x+y)+z=x+(y+z),
hence
(x+y)+z′=((x+y)+z)′=(x+(y+z))′=x+(y+z)′=x+(y+z′),
so that z′ belongs to M.
The assertion therefore holds for all z.
Theorem 6 (commutative law of addition):
x+y=y+x.
Proof: Let y be fixed, and M the set of all x for which the assertion holds.
I) We have
y+1=y′
and, by the construction in the proof of Theorem 4,
1+y=y′,
hence
1+y=y+1,
so that 1 belongs to M.
II) If x belongs to M, then
x+y=y+x,
hence
(x+y)′=(y+x)′=y+x′.
By the construction in the proof of Theorem 4, we have
x′+y=(x+y)′,
hence
x′+y=y+x′,
so that x′ belongs to M.
The assertion therefore holds for all x.
Theorem 7:
y=x+y.
Proof: Let x be fixed, and M the set of all y for which the assertion holds.
I)
1=x+1;
1 belongs to M.
II) If y belongs to M, then
y=x+y,
hence
y′=(x+y)′,y′=x+y′,
so that y′ belongs to M.
The assertion therefore holds for all y.
Theorem 8: From
y=z
follows
x+y=x+z.
Proof: For fixed y, z with
y=z
let M be the set of all x with
x+y=x+z.
I)
y′=z′,1+y=1+z;
hence 1 belongs to M.
II) If x belongs to M, then
x+y=x+z,
hence
(x+y)′=(x+z)′,x′+y=x′+z,
so that x′ belongs to M.
Hence the assertion always holds.
Theorem 9: If x and y are given, then exactly one of the following cases occurs:
x=y.
There exists a (hence, by Theorem 8, exactly one) u with
x=y+u.
There exists a (hence, by Theorem 8, exactly one) v with
y=x+v.
Proof: A) By Theorem 7, cases 1), 2) are incompatible, and so are 1), 3). From Theorem 7 there also follows the incompatibility of 2), 3); for otherwise we would have
x=y+u=(x+v)+u=x+(v+u)=(v+u)+x.
Hence at most one of the cases 1), 2), 3) occurs.
B) Let x be fixed, and M the set of all y for which one (hence, by A), exactly one) of the cases 1), 2), 3) occurs.
I) For y=1 we have, by Theorem 3, either
x=1=y(Case 1))
or
x=u′=1+u=y+u(Case 2)).
Hence 1 belongs to M.
II) Let y belong to M. Then we have
either (case 1) for y)
x=y,
hence
y′=y+1=x+1(Case 3) for y′);
or (case 2) for y)
x=y+u,
hence, if
u=1,x=y+1=y′(Case 1) for y′);
if
u=1,
then by Theorem 3
u=w′=1+w,x=y+(1+w)=(y+1)+w=y′+w(Case 2) for y′);
or (case 3) for y)
y=x+v,
hence
y′=(x+v)′=x+v′(Case 3) for y′).
In each case, therefore, y′ belongs to M.
Hence one of the cases 1), 2), 3) always occurs.
§ 3. Order
Definition 2: If
x=y+u,
then
x>y.
(> read: greater than.)
Definition 3: If
y=x+v,
then
x<y.
(< read: less than.)
Theorem 10: For arbitrary x, y, exactly one of the cases
x=y,x>y,x<y
occurs.
Proof: Theorem 9, Definition 2, and Definition 3.
Theorem 11: From
x>y
it follows that
y<x.
Proof: Both mean
x=y+u
for a suitable u.
Theorem 12: From
x<y
it follows that
y>x.
Proof: Both mean
y=x+v
for a suitable v.
Definition 4:
x≧y
means
x>yorx=y.
(≧ read: greater than or equal to.)
Definition 5:
x≦y
means
x<yorx=y.
(≦ read: less than or equal to.)
Theorem 13: From
x≧y
it follows that
y≦x.
Proof: Theorem 11.
Theorem 14: From
x≦y
it follows that
y≧x.
Proof: Theorem 12.
Theorem 15 (transitivity of order): From
x<y,y<z
it follows that
x<z.
Preliminary Remark: Thus from
x>y,y>z
it follows (since
z<y,y<x,z<x)
that
x>z;
but such statements, arising trivially by reading backwards, I shall not bother to write down in what follows.
Proof: For suitable v, w we have
y=x+v,z=y+w,
hence
z=(x+v)+w=x+(v+w),x<z.
Theorem 16: From
x≦y,y<zorx<y,y≦z
it follows that
x<z.
Proof: With the equality sign in the hypothesis, clear; otherwise settled by Theorem 15.
Theorem 17: From
x≦y,y≦z
it follows that
x≦z.
Proof: With two equality signs in the hypothesis, clear; otherwise settled by Theorem 16.
Proof: Follows from Theorem 19, since in each case the three cases are mutually exclusive and exhaust all possibilities.
Theorem 21: From
x>y,z>u
it follows that
x+z>y+u.
Proof: By Theorem 19 we have
x+z>y+z
and
y+z=z+y>u+y=y+u,
hence
x+z>y+u.
Theorem 22: From
x≧y,z>uorx>y,z≧u
it follows that
x+z>y+u.
Proof: With the equality sign in the hypothesis, settled by Theorem 19; otherwise by Theorem 21.
Theorem 23: From
x≧y,z≧u
it follows that
x+z≧y+u.
Proof: With two equality signs in the hypothesis, clear; otherwise settled by Theorem 22.
Theorem 24:
x≧1.
Proof: Either
x=1
or
x=u′=u+1>1.
Theorem 25: From
y>x
it follows that
y≧x+1.
Proof:
y=x+u,u≧1,
hence
y≧x+1.
Theorem 26: From
y<x+1
it follows that
y≦x.
Proof: Otherwise we would have
y>x,
hence by Theorem 25
y≧x+1.
Theorem 27: In every non-empty set of natural numbers there is a least one (i.e., one which is less than any other that there may be).
Proof: Let N be the given set. Let M be the set of x which are ≦ every number of N.
1 belongs to M by Theorem 24. Not every x belongs to M; for, for every y of N, y+1 does not belong to M, since
y+1>y.
Hence there is an m in M such that m+1 does not belong to M; for otherwise, by Axiom 5, every natural number would have to belong to M.
Of this m I assert that it is ≦ every n of N and that it belongs to N. The former is already established. The latter follows indirectly, thus: If m did not belong to N, then for every n of N we would have
m<n,
hence by Theorem 25
m+1≦n;
hence m+1 would belong to M, contradicting the above.
§ 4. Multiplication
Theorem 28, and at the same time Definition 6: In exactly one way can there be assigned to every pair of numbers x, y a natural number, called x⋅y (⋅ read: times; but the dot is usually not written), such that
x⋅1=x for every x,
x⋅y′=x⋅y+x for every x and every y.
x⋅y is called the product of x with y, or the number arising from multiplication of x by y.
Proof (agreeing, mutatis mutandis, word for word with that of Theorem 4): A) First we show that for each fixed x there is at most one possibility of defining xy for all y in such a way that
x⋅1=x
and
xy′=xy+xfor every y.
Let ay and by be defined for all y and be such that
a1=x,b1=x,ay′=ay+x,by′=by+xfor every y.
Let M be the set of y with
ay=by.
I)
a1=x=b1;
hence 1 belongs to M.
II) If y belongs to M, then
ay=by,
hence
ay′=ay+x=by+x=by′,
hence y′ belongs to M.
Therefore M is the set of all natural numbers; i.e., for every y we have
ay=by.
B) We now show that for every x there is a possibility of defining xy for all y in such a way that
x⋅1=x
and
xy′=xy+xfor every y.
Let M be the set of x for which there is one (hence, by A), exactly one) such possibility.
I) For
x=1
the definition
xy=y
accomplishes what is required. For
x⋅1=1=x,xy′=y′=y+1=xy+x.
Hence 1 belongs to M.
II) Let x belong to M, so that there exists an xy for all y. Then